MLI Posted September 22, 2012 Report Share Posted September 22, 2012 Does anybody know when there is a uniform field acting normally to the plane of paper, why do we consider the field as a magnetic field not an electric??? and how could we reference to the circular motion in order to justify the answer?? also can anybody explain this formula or at least its symbols r= (mv)/(Bq) Thanks 1 Reply Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
Beni Posted September 26, 2012 Report Share Posted September 26, 2012 Not sure what you're asking for in the first part :/As to the formula,r=radius; m=mass ; v=instantaneous velocity ; B=magnetic field; q=chargeThe way I understood it (did it this week in class) was that it is derived from Lorentz ForceWe start out withF=q(VxB) (where bold signifies a vector and x a cross product)But since V⊥B (cross product of perpendicular vectors: V*B*sin 90=V*B)we get F=q (V x B)Now use Newton's second law F=ma and substitute a for v2/r,thus giving mv2/r=qVBand after dividing by V and arranging a bitr= (mv)/(Bq) Hope I could help and someone please correct me if I am wrong! 1 Reply Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
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