Jenna26 Posted December 3, 2013 Report Share Posted December 3, 2013 "Molecules have potential energy because of the intermolecular forces." Ideal Gas: "there are no intermolecular forces" so does this mean an ideal gas doesn't have potential energy? I know it's a simple question, but i'd appreciate an explanation. Thanks! Reply Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
Award Winning Boss Posted December 3, 2013 Report Share Posted December 3, 2013 You're right. Since there's no force between them, then there can't be any potential energy otherwise it is possible that they'd affect other molecules. Which they don't unless they collide with each other. Reply Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Lognarithm Posted December 3, 2013 Report Share Posted December 3, 2013 An Ideal gas has Kinetic energy according to Ek=3/2kT=1/2mv2. Since potential energy in classical terms is Ep=mgh, we see that gravity does not affect the molecules in the system, meaning the energy is purely based on the average velocity of the system, which translates into average temperature. IMF's are basically just potential energy because they require energy to break and release energy, similarly to how you have to push a ball up a hill to let it roll down again (translating PE into KE). In other words, you have to add energy to get a higher velocity, and increase the KE according to Ek above. Reply Link to post Share on other sites More sharing options...
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